A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
- A. Her previous C/S was due to cephalopelvic disproportion
- B. The current pregnancy is confirmed a multiple pregnancy
- C. Previous delivery was via cesarean section
- D. Previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery.
B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
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A condition of trial of scar is
- A. Estimated fetal weight of less than 3600g
- B. Availability of a level one hospital nearby
- C. Not more than two previous caesarean section scars
- D. An adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A trial of scar is indicated when a woman has had no more than two previous caesarean sections. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each subsequent caesarean section due to scar tissue weakening. Limiting the number of previous scars reduces this risk. Therefore, option C is correct.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Estimated fetal weight is not a determining factor for a trial of scar.
B: Availability of a level one hospital nearby is important for emergency situations but not a criteria for trial of scar.
D: Adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm is important for vaginal delivery but not a specific requirement for a trial of scar.
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
- A. Rhesus D incompatibility
- B. ABO incompatibility
- C. Physiological jaundice
- D. Instant perinatal death
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis).
Summary:
- Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility.
- Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function.
- Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
- A. Frequent coughing & deep breathing
- B. Importance of perineal self-care
- C. Importance of early ambulation
- D. Signs of puerperal infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
- A. Feminizing adrenal tumors are almost always carcinomas
- B. Feminizing adrenal tumors are the most common type of adrenal tumor
- C. Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex
- D. Virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas, so A is incorrect.
Step 2: Virilizing tumors in women can originate from adrenal or extra-adrenal sites, so C is incorrect.
Step 3: Virilizing adrenal tumors are usually benign, especially in children, so D is incorrect.
Step 4: B is correct as feminizing adrenal tumors are rare but are the most common type of adrenal tumor causing gender symptoms.
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Calcium channel antagonists
- B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
- C. Pneumatic dilation
- D. Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients.
Summary for other choices:
B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice.
C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective.
D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.