Nokea
A client is diagnosed with an arrhythmia that involves irregular and rapid atrial contraction and an irregular and inefficient ventricular contraction. The nurse interprets this arrhythmia as which of the following?
- A. Atrial flutter
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Ventricular tachycardia
- D. Ventricular fibrillation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregular and rapid atrial contraction, resulting in a quivering of the atria and causing an irregular and inefficient ventricular contraction. Atrial flutter is the rapid contraction of the atria at a rate too rapid for the ventricle to pump efficiently. Ventricular tachycardia is a rapid heartbeat with a rate greater than 100 bpm. Ventricular fibrillation is rapid, disorganized contractions of the ventricles, resulting in the inability of the heart to pump any blood to the body.
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A nurse is reading a journal article about propranolol. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find discussed? Select all that apply.
- A. Is a class III antiarrhythmic
- B. Acts by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors of the heart and kidney
- C. Reduces the release of renin
- D. Increases excitability of the heart
- E. Has membrane-stabilizing effects
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a class II antiarrhythmic that acts by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors of the heart and kidney, reducing the influence of the sympathetic nervous system on these areas, decreasing the excitability of the heart and the release of renin. Propranolol also has membrane-stabilizing effects.
A client is admitted to the cardiology unit of a health care facility for ventricular arrhythmia. In which of the following conditions can an antiarrhythmic drug be safely administered?
- A. Aortic stenosis
- B. Premature ventricular contraction
- C. Third-degree heart block
- D. Severe heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse can safely administer an antiarrhythmic drug if the client has premature ventricular contractions. Aortic stenosis, third-degree heart block, and severe congestive heart failure are contraindications for the use of antiarrhythmic drugs.
A client has been prescribed an antiarrhythmic. Which of the following points should the nurse include in the client teaching plan?
- A. Decrease the dose if adverse effects occur.
- B. Chew the tablets well before swallowing.
- C. Take frequent sips of water or chew gum.
- D. Take the drug only on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take frequent sips of water or chew gum to avoid dryness of the mouth. The nurse should instruct the client not to stop the medication or change the dose and schedule without consulting the health care provider. The tablets should not be chewed or crushed. They should be swallowed whole. Taking the drug on an empty stomach may cause gastric upset. The drug should be taken with food.
Quinidine is prescribed to a client with cardiac arrhythmia. When documenting the client's drug history, the nurse inquires about the concomitant use of any other drug. Which of the following drugs when given concomitantly may cause an increase in serum quinidine levels?
- A. Cimetidine
- B. Rifampin
- C. Hydantoins
- D. Nifedipine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cimetidine, when given concurrently with quinidine, may cause an increase in serum quinidine levels. Hydantoins and nifedipine cause a decrease in serum quinidine levels. Rifampin does not interact with quinidine.
When evaluating a client who is receiving antiarrhythmic therapy, which of the following would the nurse interpret as an expected outcome? Select all that apply.
- A. No evidence of injury is seen.
- B. No evidence of infection is seen.
- C. Client is free of nausea.
- D. Client urinates adequately.
- E. Oral mucous membranes are intact and moist
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Absence of injury, infection, and nausea, adequate renal function, and intact, moist oral mucous membranes are expected outcomes for antiarrhythmic therapy.