Nokea
A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.
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What is the role of an incident report in risk management?
- A. To provide liability protection.
- B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
- C. To discipline staff for errors.
- D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.
A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
- A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
- B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
- C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
- D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.
Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing them has which of the following advantages?
- A. reduces workload
- B. decreases opposition from gravity
- C. maintains stability
- D. prevents muscle strain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When pulling a client, you work with the gravitational force instead of opposing it, which reduces the workload on your muscles. Choosing to pull a client minimizes the effort required compared to pushing. Choice B is incorrect because the force of gravity remains constant regardless of pushing or pulling. Choice C is irrelevant as stability is not directly related to the advantage of pulling over pushing. Choice D is inaccurate because pulling can still strain muscles if not executed correctly, but it generally reduces the overall workload in comparison to pushing.
Following abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. What is the purpose of this tube immediately after surgery?
- A. simplify medication administration
- B. measure accurate input and output
- C. prevent accumulation of fluids and gas
- D. facilitate collection of specimens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent accumulation of fluids and gas. Immediately after abdominal surgery, the NG tube is used to keep the stomach decompressed, preventing the accumulation of fluids and gas. This helps in maintaining decompression to prevent surgical-site disruption and fluid loss through vomiting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of the NG tube following abdominal surgery is to prevent complications related to fluid and gas build-up rather than simplifying medication administration, measuring input and output, or collecting specimens.
When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:
- A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
- B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
- C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
- D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.