Nokea
A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
- B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
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A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
- B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
- C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.
A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid using aspirin for pain.
- B. I will consume dairy products to increase my calcium intake.
- C. I will drink 1.5 to 2 liters of fluid each day.
- D. I will need to limit my intake of fiber.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.
A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.