Nokea
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
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A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?
- A. By administering it over 1-2 minutes
- B. By hanging it IV piggyback
- C. With normal saline only
- D. By administering it through a venous access device
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.
The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
- A. Rotating application sites
- B. Limiting applications to the chest
- C. Rubbing it into the skin
- D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.
A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
- A. Trendelenburg position
- B. Ice to the entire extremity
- C. Buck's traction
- D. An abduction pillow
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.
Two staff nurses were considered for promotion to head nurse. The promotion is announced via a memo on the unit bulletin board. The nurse who was not promoted tells a friend, "Oh, well, I really didn't want the job anyway."? This is an example of:
- A. rationalization.
- B. denial.
- C. projection.
- D. compensation.
Correct Answer: A.
Rationale: This is an example of rationalization, specifically the sour grapes form, where the individual convinces themselves that they didn't want something after realizing they couldn't have it. Rationalization is an unconscious form of self-deception involving making excuses. In this scenario, the nurse is rationalizing her disappointment by downplaying her desire for the promotion. Denial involves ignoring the existence of a situation, which is not demonstrated here. Projection involves blaming others unconsciously, which is also not present in this situation. Compensation is an attempt to offset a perceived weakness by emphasizing a strong point, which is not shown in the nurse's response.