A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
- B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
- C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
- D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.
You may also like to solve these questions
A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?
- A. Creating a plan of care for a client who is recovering following a stroke.
- B. Assessing a pressure injury on a client who is on bed rest.
- C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
- D. Teaching a client who has asthma to use a metered-dose inhaler.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia. This task falls within the practical nurse's scope of practice, as it involves direct patient care and basic interventions. Creating a plan of care for a client recovering from a stroke involves critical thinking and comprehensive assessment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. Assessing a pressure injury requires specialized wound care knowledge, often performed by wound care specialists or registered nurses with wound care training. Teaching a client to use a metered-dose inhaler involves patient education and requires a thorough understanding of asthma management, making it more suitable for a registered nurse.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
- B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
- C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
- D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Wheezing
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Cough with sputum production
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.
A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?
- A. 150
- B. 50
- C. 100
- D. 75
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.