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A client is having a radioisotopic imaging scan. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assess the client for shellfish allergies.
- B. Place the client on radiation precautions.
- C. Sedate the client before the scan.
- D. Teach the client about the procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the client about the procedure is crucial for informed consent, cooperation, and reducing anxiety. This empowers the client to participate actively in their care. Assessing for shellfish allergies (A) is irrelevant unless a specific contrast agent is used. Placing the client on radiation precautions (B) is unnecessary for radioisotopic imaging. Sedating the client (C) may not be indicated and should be avoided if possible. Teaching the client about the procedure (D) addresses the immediate need and supports client safety and understanding.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin therapy with recombinant factor IX to treat hemophilia B. The client asks the nurse about the risk of disease transmission with recombinant factor IX as compared with plasma derived factor IX. The nurse should explain that the recombinant factor IX practically eliminates the risk for which of the following?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
- D. Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Recombinant factor IX is produced synthetically in a laboratory, eliminating the risk of transmitting prion diseases like CJD. Plasma-derived products, on the other hand, carry a theoretical risk of transmitting CJD due to potential contamination. HIV and cytomegalovirus can be transmitted through blood products, but both plasma-derived and recombinant factor IX are rigorously tested for these viruses. Anaphylaxis is a potential risk with any factor IX product, regardless of the source. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that recombinant factor IX practically eliminates the risk of CJD transmission compared to plasma-derived factor IX.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. Hyperchlorhydria refers to high stomach acid production, not a symptom of pernicious anemia. Premature graying of hair and gastric polyp are potential features of pernicious anemia. Anti intrinsic factor antibody presence in 60% of patients is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia.
You are caring for a patient with a large localized Ewing sarcoma of the soft tissues of the arm. The surgeon believes that the tumor can be resected without amputation but asks whether you can give some chemotherapy to shrink the tumor before surgery. Which of the following would you tell the surgeon?
- A. If the tumor can be resected without amputation, then the best time to do the resection is before any chemotherapy to improve the prognosis.
- B. You agree with waiting to do the resection until week 12 of therapy and will begin chemotherapy; you recognize that radiotherapy will not be necessary if the tumor is completely resected at week 12 of therapy.
- C. You agree with waiting to do the resection until week 12 of therapy and will begin chemotherapy; you recognize that radiotherapy will be necessary even if the tumor is completely resected at week 12 of therapy.
- D. If the tumor can be resected without amputation, then the best time to do the resection is before any chemotherapy; you recognize that this is the only way to avoid radiotherapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because starting chemotherapy before resection at week 12 can help shrink the tumor, making it more manageable for surgery. A is incorrect because preoperative chemotherapy can improve outcomes. C is incorrect because radiotherapy may not be necessary if the tumor is completely resected. D is incorrect because radiotherapy may still be necessary even if the tumor is resected before chemotherapy.
A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What nursing assessment is best to assess for pallor in this client?
- A. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye.
- B. Have the patient open the hand widely.
- C. Look at the roof of the patient's mouth.
- D. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. Pallor is difficult to detect in dark-skinned individuals due to the lack of contrast. The conjunctiva of the eye provides a reliable area to assess for pallor as it is mucous membrane with blood vessels that can show changes in color. It is not accurate to assess for pallor by having the patient open the hand widely (B) as skin color on hands may vary. Looking at the roof of the mouth (C) may not accurately reflect pallor. Palpating for areas of mild swelling (D) does not assess for pallor, but rather for edema.
A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What nursing assessment is best to assess for pallor in this client?
- A. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye.
- B. Have the patient open the hand widely.
- C. Look at the roof of the patient's mouth.
- D. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent layer covering the white part of the eye. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin or mucous membranes, is more easily observed in the conjunctiva of the eye in dark-skinned individuals. This area provides a contrast to the skin tone, making it easier to detect subtle changes in color. Assessing the conjunctiva allows for a more accurate evaluation of pallor in dark-skinned clients compared to other areas like the palm, mouth, or palpation for swelling, which may not provide as clear of an indication of pallor.