Nokea
A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Open the airway.
- B. Administer oxygen.
- C. Suction the client.
- D. Check for breathing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.
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Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?
- A. exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night starting at 9:30 p.m.
- B. taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
- C. watching TV nightly until midnight
- D. getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk are appropriate measures to promote sleep as they can help relax the body and induce sleepiness. Exercising vigorously, as suggested in choice A, can be counterproductive as it stimulates the body rather than relaxing it, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, may also increase alertness due to the temperature changes and the caffeine in tea, which can interfere with falling asleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, making it harder to fall asleep. Therefore, choice D is the best option to promote sleep in this scenario.
Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?
- A. in the working phase
- B. in the termination phase
- C. in the orientation phase
- D. when the client initially brings up the topic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.
A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?
- A. positive
- B. false positive
- C. negative
- D. false negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.
Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?
- A. epilepsy
- B. Parkinson's
- C. multiple sclerosis
- D. Huntington's chorea
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This disorder is caused by a genetic mutation affecting specific brain cells. Epilepsy presents with seizures, Parkinson's with tremors and rigidity, and multiple sclerosis with central nervous system issues. The specific description of writhing and twisting movements aligns with Huntington's chorea, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they describe different neurological disorders with distinct symptoms that do not match the writhing, twisting movements characteristic of Huntington's chorea.