A client is in need of hemodialysis for end-stage renal failure. The physician has inserted an AV fistula. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for this access site?
- A. Assess for clotting in fistula tubing
- B. Apply a dressing over the fistula site
- C. Assess for a bruit or thrill at the site of the fistula
- D. Assess circulation proximal to the fistula site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When caring for an AV fistula used for hemodialysis, it is important to assess for a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (a vibrating sensation) at the site of the fistula. These indicate proper blood flow through the fistula, ensuring it is patent and suitable for hemodialysis. Assessing for clotting in fistula tubing (Choice A) is not a routine nursing intervention for AV fistulas. Applying a dressing over the fistula site (Choice B) is not necessary as the site needs to be accessible for hemodialysis. Assessing circulation proximal to the fistula site (Choice D) is important but not specific to caring for the access site of an AV fistula.
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A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?
- A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
- B. "Strawberry tongue"? is a characteristic sign.
- C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
- D. The pharynx is red and swollen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.
A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
What preparation should be made for a client undergoing a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography test?
- A. Client must be NPO before the examination
- B. Enema should be administered before the examination
- C. Medicate the client with furosemide 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the examination
- D. No special orders are necessary for this examination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that no special orders are necessary for a KUB radiography test. It is important to inform the client to remove any clothing, jewelry, or objects that may interfere with the test. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO before this examination. Option B is incorrect as enemas are not routinely administered prior to a KUB radiography test. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to medicate the client with furosemide before this examination.
A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?
- A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
- B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
- C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
- D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.
A 20-year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely test to be performed first in this scenario is blood cultures. Blood cultures are crucial to investigate the fever and rash symptoms in an unconscious patient. This test is used to detect foreign invaders like bacteria, yeast, and other microorganisms in the blood, which could indicate a blood infection (bacteremia). A positive blood culture result confirms the presence of bacteria in the blood. A blood sugar check (choice A) may be important but is less likely to be the first test in this context. A CT scan (choice B) and arterial blood gases (choice D) are generally not the initial tests performed to investigate a fever and rash with altered mental status.
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