Nokea
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.
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A client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should plan interventions to address which manifestations of this disorder? Select all that apply.
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Poor skin turgor
- D. Increased urinary output
- E. Dry mucous membranes
- F. Decreased pulse pressure
Correct Answer: C,D,E,F
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is a water metabolism problem caused by an antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency (either a decrease in ADH synthesis or an inability of the kidneys to respond to ADH). Clinical manifestations include poor skin turgor, increased urinary output, dry mucous membranes, decreased pulse pressure, tachycardia, hypotension, weak peripheral pulses, and increased thirst.
The nurse caring for a client after right radical mastectomy includes which intervention in the nursing plan of care for this client?
- A. Takes blood pressures in the right arm only
- B. Draws serum laboratory samples from the right arm only
- C. Positions the client supine and flat with the right arm elevated on a pillow
- D. Checks the right posterior axilla area when assessing the surgical dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If there is drainage or bleeding from the surgical site after mastectomy, gravity will cause the drainage to seep down and soak the posterior axillary portion of the dressing first. The nurse checks this area to detect early bleeding. Blood pressure measurement, venipuncture, and intravenous sites should not involve use of the operative arm. The client should be positioned with the head in semi-Fowler's position and the arm on the operative side elevated on pillows to decrease edema.
A preschooler with a history of cleft palate repair comes to the clinic for a routine well-child checkup. To determine whether this child is experiencing a long-term effect of cleft palate, which question should the nurse ask the parent?
- A. Does the child play with an imaginary friend?
- B. Was the child recently treated for pneumonia?
- C. Does the child respond when called by name?
- D. Has the child had any difficulty swallowing food?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A child with cleft palate is at risk for developing frequent otitis media, which can result in hearing loss. Unresponsiveness may be an indication that the child is experiencing hearing loss. Option 1 is normal behavior for a preschool child. Many preschoolers with vivid imaginations have imaginary friends. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to cleft palate after repair.
The nurse has a prescription to ambulate a client with a nephrostomy tube four times a day. The nurse determines that the safest way to ambulate the client while maintaining the integrity of the nephrostomy tube is to implement which intervention?
- A. Change the drainage bag to a leg collection bag.
- B. Tie the drainage bag to the client's waist while ambulating.
- C. Use a walker to hang the drainage bag from while ambulating.
- D. Tell the client to hold the drainage bag higher than the level of the bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The safest approach to protect the integrity and safety of the nephrostomy tube with a mobile client is to attach the tube to a leg collection bag. This allows for greater freedom of movement, while preventing accidental disconnection or dislodgment. The drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder. Option 3 presents the risk of tension or pulling on the nephrostomy tube by the client during ambulation.
The nurse is preparing a client diagnosed with Graves' disease to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse share with the client about the therapy?
- A. After the initial dose, subsequent treatments must continue lifelong.
- B. The radioactive iodine is designed to destroy the entire thyroid gland with just one dose.
- C. It takes 6 to 8 weeks after treatment to experience relief from the symptoms of the disease.
- D. High radioactivity levels prohibit contact with family for 4 weeks after the initial treatment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Graves' disease is also known as toxic diffuse goiter and is characterized by a hyperthyroid state resulting from hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. After treatment with radioactive iodine therapy, a decrease in the thyroid hormone level should be noted, which helps alleviate symptoms. Relief of symptoms does not occur until 6 to 8 weeks after initial treatment. Occasionally, a client may require a second or third dose, but treatments are not lifelong. This form of therapy is not designed to destroy the entire gland; rather, some of the cells that synthesize thyroid hormone will be destroyed by the local radiation. The nurse must reassure the client and family that unless the dosage is extremely high, clients are not required to observe radiation precautions. The rationale for this is that the radioactivity quickly dissipates.