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A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), there is a decreased platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets.
Step 2: This leads to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising in the postpartum client.
Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because in ITP, there is no increase in ESR or WBC. Also, megakaryocytes may be normal or increased due to compensatory production.
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While caring for a newborn undergoing phototherapy to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light.
- B. Keep the newborn in a shirt while under the phototherapy light.
- C. Apply a light moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin.
- D. Turn and reposition the newborn every 4 hours while undergoing phototherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light.
Rationale:
1. Phototherapy light can cause eye damage, so covering the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask protects them.
2. Newborns' eyes are more sensitive to light, making eye protection crucial during phototherapy.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Keeping the newborn in a shirt won't protect the eyes from phototherapy light.
C: Applying lotion can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and may cause skin irritation.
D: Turning and repositioning the newborn is important for comfort, but eye protection is the priority during phototherapy.
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
- C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure.
A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client.
B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter.
D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
- B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
- C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
- D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex.
Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse.
Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive.
- Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns.
- Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase.
Summary:
A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm.
C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm.
D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
- B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
- C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
- D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Checking the strings of the IUD after periods ensures that the device is in place. This indicates understanding of IUD maintenance. Choice A is incorrect because IUDs usually last 3-10 years and do not need annual replacement. Choice B is incorrect because nulliparous women can also use IUDs. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns quickly after IUD removal, not necessarily after 5 months.