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A client is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Bleeding or bruising
- C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects related to bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a severe side effect associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black, tarry stools or vomiting blood, is essential to prevent serious complications.
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A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.
A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?
- A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
- B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
- C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
- D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.