Nokea
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
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The nurse is concerned that a client admitted for a total hip replacement is at risk for thrombus formation. Which assessment finding caused the nurse to draw this conclusion?
- A. Body mass index (BMI) 35.8
- B. Former cigarette smoker
- C. Blood pressure 132/88 mmHg
- D. Age 45 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A former cigarette smoker is at increased risk for thrombus formation due to the damage smoking causes to the blood vessels, increasing the likelihood of blood clots. Smoking can also contribute to inflammation and increased platelet activation, further promoting clot formation. This risk factor is particularly concerning in a client undergoing a total hip replacement surgery, as immobility and surgery itself can also increase the risk of blood clots forming. Monitoring and addressing this risk factor is important in preventing potential complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in this client population. While the other assessment findings are important to consider for overall health, the former cigarette smoking status is specifically associated with thrombus formation in this scenario.
During an assessment, the nurse decides to assess a patient’s calcium level. Which action will the nurse take to identify a low calcium level?
- A. Palpate turgor of skin
- B. Observe the color of the skin
- C. Conduct a Trousseau’s sign test
- D. Save urine to measure 17-ketosteroids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Trousseau’s sign test is used to identify low calcium levels in a patient. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm above systolic pressure for a few minutes, which can trigger a carpal spasm (wrist and hand flexion) in patients with low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). This is due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, conducting a Trousseau’s sign test is the appropriate action to identify a low calcium level in a patient. Palpating turgor of skin, observing the color of the skin, and saving urine to measure 17-ketosteroids are not relevant actions for assessing calcium levels.
A nurse is caring for a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has lost approximately 1,550 mL of blood. The nurse should recognize that the client's shock will be classified as:
- A. Class I
- B. Class II
- C. Class III
- D. Class IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Class III hemorrhagic shock typically involves the loss of 1,500-2,000 mL of blood, which aligns closely with the approximately 1,550 mL of blood lost by the client in this scenario. Class III shock is considered severe and can lead to significant physiological consequences, including decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, altered mental status, and potential organ dysfunction. Therefore, based on the amount of blood loss and severity of symptoms, the client's shock would be classified as Class III.
A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
- A. Bradydysrhythmia
- B. Tachydysrhythmia
- C. Wolff-Parkinson-White dysrhythmia
- D. Long QT dysrhythmia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
- A. ADH
- B. Renin
- C. Thyroxin
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.