Nokea
A client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse monitors the client for which of the following signs indicating a complication of the therapy?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Decreased hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. A fever may indicate infection, a common and serious complication of chemotherapy, requiring prompt intervention.
Choice A, Alopecia, is a common side effect of chemotherapy but not a sign of a complication. Choice B, Weight gain, is not typically a sign of a complication of chemotherapy. Choice D, Decreased hemoglobin level, may occur due to chemotherapy but is not a direct sign of a complication.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is a characteristic of normal cells?
- A. They have no functions
- B. They have a larger nucleus
- C. They undergo apoptosis
- D. They have a dark-colored nucleus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that normal cells undergo apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis. Choice A is incorrect as normal cells do have specific functions. Choice B is incorrect as the size of the nucleus may vary but is not a defining characteristic of normal cells. Choice D is incorrect as the color of the nucleus is not a standard characteristic of normal cells.
The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?
- A. Frequent swallowing
- B. Presence of mucous membranes
- C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
- D. Inspiratory stridor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hyperproteinemia
- C. Elevated serum viscosity
- D. Elevated RBC count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.
A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
- B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
- C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
- D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.