A 28-year-old patient has decided to use the patch contraception. The nurse is educating her on the best site to use. Where is the best place to put the patch? Select one that does not that apply.
- A. Buttocks
- B. Leg
- C. Breast
- D. Arm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best sites for applying the contraceptive patch are the buttocks, arm, and leg. These areas have sufficient fat and are away from areas that might rub off the patch. Choice B (Neck) is incorrect as the neck is not recommended for patch application due to the potential for irritation and the high blood flow area. Choice C (Breast) is not recommended because the breast tissue may affect the adhesion of the patch.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is considered the first day of the menstrual cycle?
- A. day of ovulation
- B. first day of menstrual bleeding
- C. last day of menstrual bleeding
- D. when the corpus luteum forms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The nurse is teaching a client about signs of labor. Which symptom indicates true labor?
- A. Irregular contractions that stop with activity.
- B. Contractions felt in the abdomen only.
- C. Cervical dilation and effacement.
- D. Absence of fetal movement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: True labor is characterized by regular contractions that cause cervical dilation and effacement.
A labor client has been diagnosed with CPD following attempts of pushing for 2 hours with no progress. Based on the info, which birth method is available when you have CPD (baby can't come out)?
- A. C/S
- B. Induced labor
- C. Vaginal birth with vacuum
- D. Insert foley catheter to empty bladder and make more room
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) occurs when the baby's head or body is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. In cases where CPD is diagnosed and labor has stalled despite adequate efforts (such as pushing for 2 hours with no progress), the safest and most appropriate method to deliver the baby is through a cesarean section (C/S). This surgical procedure allows for a safe delivery when vaginal delivery is not possible due to CPD, ensuring the well-being of both the baby and the mother. Induced labor, vaginal birth with vacuum, or inserting a foley catheter to empty the bladder would not be effective or safe in cases of CPD where the baby cannot pass through the birth canal.
A client reports experiencing painless contractions at 32 weeks' gestation. What should the nurse explain?
- A. These are Braxton Hicks contractions and are normal.
- B. This is a sign of preterm labor.
- C. This indicates cervical dilation.
- D. This requires immediate hospitalization.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are common in the third trimester and typically do not signify labor.
A nurse is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr. postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
- B. Urine output 100 mL in hr.
- C. Pulse 58/min
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Methylergonovine is a medication used to help contract the uterus and control postpartum hemorrhage. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction, which can lead to increased blood pressure. The client's blood pressure of 142/92 mm Hg is elevated, and administering methylergonovine could further increase the blood pressure, potentially causing harm to the client. It is important to withhold the medication in this situation to prevent worsening of hypertension. The other assessment findings are within normal ranges and do not contraindicate the administration of methylergonovine.