Nokea
A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I'm glad I don't have to lie still for this procedure.
- B. I will have a local anesthetic to help with discomfort.
- C. I hope I get some medicine to relax me.
- D. I can't eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.
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What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
- B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
- C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
- D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.
A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Warm, dry skin
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Administer the medication with the needle at a 30-degree angle.
- D. Administer the medication with the needle at a 15-degree angle.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.
What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
- A. Chocolate pudding.
- B. Graham crackers.
- C. Sugar-free gelatin.
- D. Apple slices.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.
Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
- A. Oil Retention
- B. Saline
- C. Soapy Water
- D. Hypertonic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.