Nokea
A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) in the morning using a saphenous vein. The physician does not use the internal mammary artery for the bypass graft, because the internal mammary artery:
- A. takes more time to remove.
- B. has a greater risk of becoming reoccluded.
- C. is smaller in diameter.
- D. has too many valves.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Many physicians do not use the internal mammary artery because it is time consuming. Removing the internal mammary artery does not pose a greater risk of reocclusion. In fact, it may stay patent longer. The internal mammary artery is larger in diameter than the saphenous vein. The internal mammary artery does not have too many valves.
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Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy?
- A. Because their defense mechanisms are less efficient.
- B. Because they are prone to fluid overload.
- C. Because they are prone to increased renal efficiency.
- D. Because they have inadequate intake of dietary fiber.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are more susceptible to fluid overload due to decreased kidney function and other physiological changes.
Instructions for a patient at risk for testicular cancer include
- A. Restrict potassium, phosphate, sodium, protein in diet.
- B. Self-catheterization of ileal reservoir.
- C. Testicular self-exam.
- D. Change in color of urine is to be expected.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Regular self-exams help detect testicular cancer early.
What intervention should a nurse use when the client is unable to cough and raise secretions?
- A. Give the client water to drink.
- B. Pat the client on the back.
- C. Gently suction the client.
- D. Give the client cough syrup.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gentle suctioning effectively removes secretions, preventing respiratory complications.
A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Tobramycin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, and ciprofloxacin is the recommended antibiotic for treating anthrax due to its effectiveness against this specific bacterium. Ciprofloxacin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication, thus stopping the growth and spread of the anthrax bacteria.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and is not effective against bacterial infections like anthrax.
C: Tobramycin is an antibiotic primarily used to treat bacterial infections in the eyes, ears, and skin, but it is not the first-line treatment for anthrax.
D: Vancomycin is an antibiotic used to treat certain bacterial infections, but it is not the preferred choice for anthrax treatment.
Seven tasks required for daily living with chronic illness have been identified. From Table 5-4, select at least one of these tasks that would specifically apply to the following common chronic conditions in older adults.
- A. Diabetes mellitus
- B. Visual impairment
- C. Heart disease
- D. Hearing impairment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Each chronic condition requires specific daily living tasks: Diabetes involves monitoring blood sugar; visual impairment may require adaptive techniques; heart disease necessitates lifestyle modifications; hearing impairment might involve using assistive devices.