A client is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. The nurse explains that:
- A. Contrast dye is used.
- B. No preparation is needed.
- C. Fasting is required.
- D. A sedative is given.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renal ultrasound is non-invasive and requires no special preparation.
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Which of the following would be a significant intervention to help prevent lung cancer?
- A. Encourage cigarette smokers to have yearly access to drugs.
- B. Instruct people about techniques for smoking cessation.
- C. Recommend that people have their houses and apartments checked for asbestos leakage.
- D. Encourage people to install central air cleaners in their homes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention to prevent lung cancer, as smoking is the leading cause. Screening (not 'access to drugs'), asbestos checks, and air cleaners are less impactful.
Which of the following is not a typical clinical manifestation of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
- A. Double vision.
- B. Sudden bursts of energy.
- C. Weakness in the extremities.
- D. Muscle tremors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden bursts of energy are not typical in MS, which often causes fatigue. Double vision, weakness, and tremors are common due to demyelination affecting vision, motor, and coordination.
The nurse is conducting a postoperative assessment of a client on the first day after renal surgery. Which of the following findings would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?
- A. Temperature, 99.8°F (37.7°C).
- B. Urine output, 20 mL/hour.
- C. Absence of bowel sounds.
- D. A 2€ x 2€ area of serosanguineous drainage on the flank dressing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 20 mL/hour is critically low, indicating potential renal compromise or obstruction, requiring immediate physician notification.
The nurse should assess a client with thrombocytopenia who has developed a hemorrhage for which of the following?
- A. Tachycardia.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemorrhage in a client with thrombocytopenia can lead to hypovolemia, causing tachycardia as the heart compensates for decreased blood volume. Bradycardia is not typical, and while decreased urine output and hypotension may occur later, tachycardia is an earlier and more immediate sign.
The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with a decreased cardiac output. Which findings should receive the highest priority?
- A. BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bibasilar crackles.
- B. Confusion, urine output 15 mL over the last 2 hours, orthopnea.
- C. SpO2 92 on 2 liters nasal cannula, respirations 20, 1+ edema of lower extremities.
- D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with exercise.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Confusion, low urine output, and orthopnea indicate severe heart failure with potential cerebral and renal hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention. Other options reflect stable or less urgent findings.
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