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A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?
- A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
- B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
- C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
- D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.
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A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor sodium intake.
- C. Report any signs of weight gain.
- D. Avoid excessive caffeine intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor sodium intake.' Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to maintain a consistent sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C, reporting signs of weight gain, is relevant but not as critical as monitoring sodium intake. Option D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is important for some individuals but not as essential as monitoring sodium levels when taking lithium.