A client is scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing change. Which action should the nurse take to ensure that the client is comfortable during the procedure?
- A. Ensure that the client is appropriately dressed.
- B. Administer an opioid analgesic 30 to 60 minutes before therapy.
- C. Schedule the therapy at a time when the client generally takes a nap.
- D. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the client during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should receive pain medication approximately 30 to 60 minutes before a burn dressing change. This will help the client tolerate an otherwise painful procedure. None of the remaining options addresses the issue of pain effectively.
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The nurse admitting a client diagnosed with myocardial infarction (MI) to the coronary care unit (CCU) should plan care by implementing which intervention?
- A. Beginning thrombolytic therapy
- B. Placing the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
- C. Infusing intravenous (IV) fluid at a rate of 150 mL per hour
- D. Administering oxygen at a rate of 6 L per minute by nasal cannula
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard interventions upon admittance to the CCU as they relate to this question include continuous cardiac monitoring. Thrombolytic therapy may or may not be prescribed by the primary health care provider. Thrombolytic agents are most effective if administered within the first 6 hours of the coronary event. The nurse should ensure that there is an adequate IV line insertion of an intermittent lock. If an IV infusion is administered, it is maintained at a keep-vein-open rate to prevent fluid overload and heart failure. Oxygen should be administered at a rate of 2 to 4 L per minute unless otherwise prescribed.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving bolus feedings via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The nurse should place the client in which position to administer the feeding?
- A. Supine
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Trendelenburg's
- D. Lateral recumbent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients are at high risk for aspiration during an NG tube feeding because the tube bypasses a protective mechanism, the gag reflex. The head of the bed is elevated 35 to 40 degrees (Semi-Fowler's) to prevent this complication by facilitating gastric emptying. The remaining options increase the risk of aspiration by blunting the effect of gravity on gastric emptying.
A pregnant client tells the nurse that she felt wetness on her peripad and found some clear fluid. The nurse inspects the perineum and notes the presence of the umbilical cord. What is the immediate nursing action?
- A. Monitor the fetal heart rate.
- B. Notify the primary health care provider.
- C. Transfer the client to the delivery room.
- D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: On inspection of the perineum, if the umbilical cord is noted, the nurse immediately places the client in the Trendelenburg position while gently holding the presenting part upward to relieve the cord compression. This position is maintained and the primary health care provider is notified. The fetal heart rate also needs to be monitored to assess for fetal distress. The client is transferred to the delivery room when prescribed by the primary health care provider.
The home health nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client who has been discharged after an insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which client statement indicates that an understanding of self-care is evident?
- A. I will never be able to operate a microwave oven again.
- B. I should expect occasional feelings of dizziness and fatigue.
- C. I will take my pulse in the wrist or neck daily and record it in a log.
- D. Moving my arms and shoulders vigorously helps check pacemaker functioning.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with permanent pacemakers must be able to take their pulse in the wrist and/or neck accurately so as to note any variation in the pulse rate or rhythm that may need to be reported to the primary health care provider. Clients can safely operate most appliances and tools, such as microwave ovens, video recorders, AM-FM radios, electric blankets, lawn mowers, and leaf blowers, as long as the devices are grounded and in good repair. If the client experiences any feelings of dizziness, fatigue, or an irregular heartbeat, the primary health care provider is notified. The arms and shoulders should not be moved vigorously for 6 weeks after insertion.
A client with a spinal cord injury is at risk of developing footdrop. What intervention should the nurse use as a preventive measure?
- A. Mole skin-lined heel protectors
- B. Regular use of posterior splints
- C. Application of pneumatic boots
- D. Avoiding dorsal flexion of the foot
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The effective means of preventing footdrop (plantar flexion) is the use of posterior splints or high-top sneakers. Dorsal flexing of the foot would help to counteract the effects of footdrop. Heel protectors protect the skin but do not prevent footdrop. Pneumatic boots prevent deep vein thrombosis but not footdrop.