Nokea
A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?
- A. If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
- B. Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
- C. Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
- D. If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.
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A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.
A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?
- A. administering immune globulin intravenously
- B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
- C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
- D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.
During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?
- A. "The client said they have been taking aspirin, but I'm not sure for how long or how much."?
- B. "The client frequently takes antacids, but they have not taken any in the last three days."?
- C. "The client stopped taking ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers."?
- D. "The client takes Antabuse and has stopped using mouthwash."?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.
During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, what is the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents?
- A. the potential hazards of accidents
- B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
- C. toilet training
- D. how to purchase appropriate shoes now that the child is walking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents is the potential hazards of accidents. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Discussions about appropriate nutrition should have been addressed during the weaning process, while the purchase of appropriate shoes is important but not life-threatening. Toilet training typically begins around 2 years of age, so 1 year of age is too early to discuss it. Therefore, the focus should be on educating parents about accident prevention to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
The parents of a 2-year-old child ask the nurse how they can teach their child to stop taking toys away from other children. Which of the following statements by the nurse offers the parents the best explanation of their child's behavior?
- A. "Your child is egocentric. Egocentricity is normal for 2-year-old children. He believes other children want him to have their toys."?
- B. "Your child is showing negativity. He doesn't want other children to have the toys he wants."?
- C. "Your child is demonstrating magical thinking. He believes he can make the other children want him to play with their toys."?
- D. "Your child is engaging in domestic imitation. He is doing what he has seen other children do."?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Two-year-old children are very egocentric, believing everything revolves around them. They think other children want them to have their toys, which explains why they may take toys from others. This behavior is typical for children at this age as they lack the ability to see things from another's perspective. Option B is incorrect because negativity in children this age is more related to refusal of requests rather than taking toys. Magical thinking, as described in option C, is usually seen in preschool-age children and involves unrealistic beliefs. Option D is incorrect as domestic imitation refers to imitating adult household tasks, not other children's behavior.