Nokea
A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?
- A. One-quarter
- B. One-third
- C. One-half
- D. Two-thirds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.
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A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?
- A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
- B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
- C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
- D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.
A hepatitis B screen is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the client's blood. On the basis of this finding, the nurse makes which determination?
- A. Hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine will be administered to the newborn infant soon after birth
- B. The results are negative.
- C. The results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B
- D. The client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hepatitis B screen is performed to identify antigens in maternal blood. If antigens are present, it indicates that the mother is a carrier, and the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth to prevent transmission. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because the presence of antigens indicates a positive result, not a negative one or the absence of hepatitis B in the mother. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, which is not the immediate action required when antigens are found in the maternal blood.
A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?
- A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
- B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
- C. Cleansing breaths
- D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.
A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?
- A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
- C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
- D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.
When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?
- A. polyandry
- B. soronal
- C. nonsororal
- D. sororate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as soronal. When the wives are not sisters it is nonsororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands and is rare. Some cultures practice a polygamy designated as sororate. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife's sister if she dies. These marriages are successive rather than concurrent.