A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. HIV infection has been confirmed
- B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
- C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
- D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.
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A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urine retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.
The patient is receiving a high dose of tetracycline (Sumycin). Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor while caring for this patient?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
- B. Complete blood counts
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Liver enzyme levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High doses of tetracyclines can lead to nephrotoxicity, especially when given along with other nephrotoxic drugs. Renal function tests, such as monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, should be performed to assess for nephrotoxicity. Monitoring complete blood counts (choice B) is not directly related to tetracycline therapy. Checking electrolytes (choice C) is important but not the priority when monitoring for tetracycline-induced nephrotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels (choice D) is not typically indicated in the context of tetracycline therapy.
Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Clients taking synthetic creatine supplements
- B. Clients taking metformin for diabetes mellitus
- C. Clients taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain
- D. Clients taking prenatal vitamins and using albuterol nebulizers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Synthetic creatine supplements can cause kidney damage, metformin may rarely cause lactic acidosis leading to renal impairment, and high-dose NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers are not known to significantly impact kidney function, thus do not pose a risk for kidney problems.
A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Viral hepatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.
A client with acute kidney injury has a blood pressure of 76/55 mm Hg. The health care provider ordered 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over 1 hour to maintain perfusion. The client is starting to develop shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP).
- B. Ask for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
- C. Take the client's pulse.
- D. Slow down the normal saline infusion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client may be developing fluid overload and respiratory distress due to the rapid normal saline infusion. The priority action is to slow down the infusion to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential fluid overload. While calculating the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important to assess perfusion, addressing the immediate respiratory distress takes precedence. Inserting a pulmonary artery catheter would provide detailed hemodynamic information but is not the initial step in managing acute respiratory distress. Monitoring vital signs, including the client's pulse, is crucial after adjusting the intravenous infusion to ensure a safe response to the intervention.