Nokea
A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?
- A. 13 ml/hour
- B. 63 ml/hour
- C. 80 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.
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The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse?
- A. A report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month
- B. A comment by the client 'I just can't sit still.'
- C. The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets
- D. A report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets, known as exophthalmos, requires quick intervention as it is a severe symptom of Graves' disease. Exophthalmos can indicate an acute condition and may lead to serious complications such as optic nerve damage or corneal ulceration. Weight loss, restlessness, and irritability are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism but do not pose immediate risks compared to the ocular complications associated with exophthalmos.
A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
- A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
- C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
- D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
A client with difficulty self-feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis should be referred to which member of the interprofessional care team to use adaptive devices?
- A. Social worker
- B. Certified nursing assistant
- C. Registered dietitian
- D. Occupational therapist
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Occupational therapist. Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients with adaptive devices to enhance their ability to perform daily activities like self-feeding. They evaluate client needs and provide interventions to promote independence in activities of daily living. Choice A, Social worker, focuses on psychosocial support and community resources, not directly addressing the physical aspect of self-feeding difficulty. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is involved in direct patient care but lacks specialized training in adaptive devices. Choice C, Registered dietitian, primarily focuses on nutrition-related issues and may not have the expertise in adaptive devices and functional rehabilitation necessary for this client's self-feeding challenges.
A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture removal kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Remove sutures using sterile technique.
- C. Inspect the wound for signs of infection.
- D. Document the removal of sutures.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After applying sterile gloves, the nurse should proceed to remove the sutures using sterile technique. This step ensures the safe and effective removal of sutures without introducing infection. Choice A, cleaning sutures along the incision site, would not be the next step as the primary focus is on suture removal. Inspecting the wound for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but typically follows suture removal. Documenting the removal of sutures (Choice D) is essential but usually occurs after the procedure is completed.