A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client's history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. Men who had cryptorchidism, a condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth, have a higher risk of developing testicular cancer compared to those without this condition. The abnormal positioning of the testicle outside the scrotum may disrupt normal testicular development and increase the likelihood of malignant transformation. Therefore, clients with a history of cryptorchidism are at increased risk for testicular cancer and warrant close monitoring and follow-up.
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Olympic gymnast Ms. Slovenski sufferd a great fall and suffered a great fall and fractured her femur. Approximately after 20 hours in the hospital she became dyspneic, tachypneic, and with scattered crackles in her lung fields. She is coughing up large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse correctly interprets this as:
- A. respiratory compromise related to inhalation of smoke
- B. pneumonia related to prolonged bedrest
- C. fat embolism syndrome related to femur fracture
- D. hypovolemic shock related to multiple trauma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario - dyspnea, tachypnea, crackles in lung fields, and coughing up thick, white sputum - are indicative of fat embolism syndrome (FES), which occurs as a complication of long bone fractures like the femur fracture in this case. FES is characterized by the release of fat droplets into the bloodstream, which can then travel to the lungs and cause respiratory distress. The onset of symptoms typically occurs within 24-72 hours after the initial injury, making it a likely cause for Ms. Slovenski's condition. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and intervention to prevent further complications. The other options (A, B, and D) do not align with the clinical picture presented in the scenario and are less likely causes of her current symptoms.
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
- A. To reduce the risk of seizures before and after surgery
- B. To avoid intraoperative complications
- C. To reduce cerebral edema
- D. To prevent postoperative vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement justifying the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before intracranial surgery is "To reduce the risk of seizures before and after surgery." Patients undergoing intracranial surgery are at an increased risk of seizures due to the manipulation of the brain tissue and the potential for increased intracranial pressure during the procedure. Administering an anticonvulsant like phenytoin before surgery helps reduce the risk of seizures both during the surgery and in the postoperative period. This proactive approach not only protects the patient from the potential harm associated with seizures but also contributes to a smoother recovery process.
Where is the appropriate placement of a tongue blade for assessment of the mouth and throat?
- A. Center back area of tongue
- B. Side of the tongue
- C. Against the soft palate
- D. On the lower jaw
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate placement of a tongue blade for assessment of the mouth and throat is at the center back area of the tongue. This location allows the healthcare provider to depress the tongue gently to have a clear view of the oral cavity, tonsils, and throat structures. Placing the tongue blade on the side of the tongue may not provide adequate visualization, and placing it against the soft palate or on the lower jaw would not help in examining the mouth and throat effectively.
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
- A. Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic)
- B. Regular insulin
- C. Furosemide (Lasix)
- D. 10% dextrose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to reduced secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. Therefore, the treatment for diabetes insipidus typically involves administering synthetic vasopressin, such as desmopressin (DDAVP) or vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic), to replace the deficient hormone and help the kidneys reabsorb more water. Vasopressin helps regulate water balance in the body by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing urine output, and preventing dehydration. Therefore, the nurse would expect to administer vasopressin to a client with diabetes insipidus to help manage the condition effectively.
A blood sample for measurement of bilirubin is required from a newborn receiving phototherapy. In what environment should this blood sample be drawn?
- A. While phototherapy lights are turned off
- B. While newborn remains under phototherapy lights
- C. When newborn is covered with a blanket
- D. When newborn has been off phototherapy for 30 to 60 minutes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The blood sample for measurement of bilirubin should be drawn when the newborn has been off phototherapy for 30 to 60 minutes. The reason for this is that phototherapy can alter bilirubin levels through photoisomerization, making it challenging to interpret the results accurately while the newborn is still under the lights. Allowing a period of 30 to 60 minutes for the newborn to be off phototherapy helps to ensure that the bilirubin level obtained from the blood sample reflects a more accurate baseline level. This practice helps in guiding clinical management decisions related to managing hyperbilirubinemia in newborns.