Nokea
A client needs to maintain a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend as a good source of complete protein?
- A. Cheddar cheese
- B. White rice
- C. Apples
- D. Green beans
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is the correct answer as it is a good source of complete protein that contains all essential amino acids required for maintaining a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Complete proteins provide all essential amino acids needed by the body. White rice, apples, and green beans do not offer complete proteins like cheddar cheese, making them inadequate choices for this purpose.
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A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Arterial pH of 7.20
- D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check IV tubing for obstruction
- B. Increase the flow rate
- C. Change the IV site
- D. Notify the physician
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.
A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:
- A. Purulent
- B. Serous
- C. Sanguineous
- D. Serosanguineous
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client's oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Check the client's pupillary reaction to light
- B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
- C. Ask the client to identify different scents
- D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client's cornea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Checking the client's pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.
A client is experiencing dyspnea and fatigue after completing morning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Schedule rest periods during morning care.
- B. Discontinue morning care for 2 days.
- C. Perform all care as quickly as possible.
- D. Ask a family member to come in to bathe the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scheduling rest periods during morning care is essential for managing dyspnea and fatigue in the client. This approach allows the client to pace themselves and catch their breath, promoting comfort and reducing symptoms. It is crucial to provide breaks to prevent overwhelming the client and exacerbating their symptoms. Discontinuing morning care for 2 days (choice B) is not a suitable solution as it does not address the underlying issue and may lead to neglect of essential care. Performing all care as quickly as possible (choice C) can worsen the client's symptoms and compromise their well-being by increasing stress and exertion. Asking a family member to bathe the client (choice D) does not address the need for rest periods during care and may not be feasible or appropriate in all situations.