A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid drinking milk
- B. Eat three large meals a day
- C. Avoid eating spicy foods
- D. Increase fluid intake with meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.
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A client admitted to the hospital for depression is escorted to a private room. Prior to leaving the room, what intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Explain the program's guidelines
- B. Search all personal belongings
- C. Initiate psychosocial assessment
- D. Review the healthcare provider's prescription
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Searching personal belongings is essential to ensure the safety of the client by preventing access to items that could be used for self-harm. While explaining the program's guidelines (Choice A) and initiating a psychosocial assessment (Choice C) are important aspects of care, the immediate concern in this situation is the safety of the client. Reviewing the healthcare provider's prescription (Choice D) is important for providing appropriate treatment but is not as urgent as ensuring the client's safety.
A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.
An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.
When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 min, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hr?
- A. 42
- B. 50
- C. 60
- D. 70
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, we first need to determine the frequency of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, this corresponds to 20 to 30 contractions in an hour (60 minutes). The average is 25 contractions in an hour. The pump should be infusing 1 ml for each contraction, so the infusion rate should be 25 ml/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 42 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.
In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Pink lips and tongue with cyanotic hands and feet
- B. Respiration rate of 40 and heart rate of 144
- C. Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia when crying
- D. Desquamation from areas of cracked, parchment-like skin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.
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