Nokea
A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid touching the incision sites with bare hands.
- B. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Keep the incision sites clean and dry.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?
- A. Altered sensory perception
- B. Impaired social interaction
- C. Risk for self-directed violence
- D. Disturbed thought processes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.
At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
- A. Singed nasal hairs
- B. Conjunctivitis
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Clear sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?
- A. High-protein diet
- B. Frequent repositioning
- C. Immobility
- D. Active range of motion exercises
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.
The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
- A. Protect the client's feet from injury
- B. Apply a heating pad to the affected area
- C. Keep the client's feet elevated
- D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.