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A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?
- A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
- B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
- C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
- D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.
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A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce which instruction regarding the administration of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
- B. Take the medication immediately after a meal.
- C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Crush the medication and mix it with food.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate is to take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast. This timing is crucial to ensure proper absorption in the body and reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Taking it immediately after a meal or lying down for 30 minutes after may affect absorption and increase the risk of adverse effects. It should not be crushed or mixed with food to maintain its effectiveness.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?
- A. Sputum specimen
- B. Set of vital signs
- C. Electrocardiogram
- D. Glucometer check
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.