A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. CAGE is a tool for general substance abuse screening.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response does not indicate alcohol addiction.
- D. All four responses must be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer calcium gluconate.
- D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.
A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?
- A. Anticholinergics
- B. Beta blockers
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.
A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
- B. Monitor the client's heart rate and report any bradycardia.
- C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.
A client reports that the skin around the edges of a wound is red and swollen. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Reinforce the wound dressing
- C. Contact the healthcare provider
- D. Apply a warm compress to the wound
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. Redness and swelling around a wound are indicative of a potential infection. The priority intervention for the nurse is to closely monitor the wound for further signs of infection, such as increased drainage or fever. Reinforcing the wound dressing may be necessary, but it is not the priority when infection is suspected. Contacting the healthcare provider is important, but the nurse should first assess and monitor the wound to provide comprehensive information when contacting the provider. Applying a warm compress can potentially worsen the infection by promoting bacterial growth, so it is contraindicated in this situation.
Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse that he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to drink milk
- B. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream
- C. Instruct the client to take antacids instead
- D. Advise the client to monitor their symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should be advised to avoid foods rich in milk and cream. Although they provide temporary relief, dairy products, especially milk, stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Encouraging the client to drink milk (Choice A) would be counterproductive and could worsen the condition. Instructing the client to take antacids (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the issue. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms (Choice D) is vague and does not provide specific guidance on managing the duodenal ulcer. Therefore, the best action is to review with the client the need to avoid foods rich in milk and cream to ensure proper ulcer management.
Nokea