Nokea
A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
- A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
- B. stomatitis.
- C. constipation.
- D. xerostomia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
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The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?
- A. triglyceride level
- B. liver function tests
- C. a glucose tolerance test
- D. a complete blood count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.
High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by
- A. the kidneys' inability to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.
A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:
- A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
- B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
- C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
- D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.
A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
- B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
- C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
- D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is appropriate as it demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Ginger is commonly used to alleviate nausea, particularly in Asian cultures. Contacting the physician to discuss the use of ginger ensures the client's safety and respects their preferences. Choices B and C are incorrect as they disregard the client's request and fail to acknowledge their cultural beliefs. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the client's desire to use ginger for relief.
A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes the following situations. Which of the following may indicate a delayed child to the nurse?
- A. A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise'.
- B. An 8-month-old that can sit upright unsupported.
- C. A 6-month-old that is rolling prone to supine.
- D. A 3-month-old that does not roll supine to prone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise''. At 12 months, a child should at least be 'cruising' (holding on to objects to walk), which is considered pre-walking. The other choices describe age-appropriate developmental milestones: sitting upright unsupported by 8 months, rolling prone to supine by 6 months, and rolling supine to prone by 3 months. Not 'cruising' at 12 months may indicate a delay in motor skills development.