Nokea
A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
- B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
- C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
- D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.
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Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
- B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
- D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
When preparing for the patient's subsequent care after completing the full course of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia without a significant response, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Arrange a meeting between the patient's family and the hospital chaplain.
- B. Assess the factors underlying the patient's failure to adhere to the treatment regimen.
- C. Encourage the patient to vigorously pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM).
- D. Identify the patient's specific wishes around end-of-life care.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In cases where a patient does not respond appreciably to therapy, it is crucial to identify and respect the patient's choices regarding treatment, including preferences for end-of-life care. Option A is incorrect because it focuses on spiritual support rather than the patient's care preferences. Option B is incorrect as it assumes non-adherence to treatment without evidence. Option C is incorrect as it suggests an alternative treatment approach without considering the patient's wishes for end-of-life care.
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
- A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
- B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
- C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Tumor lysis syndrome is a potential complication after treatment for certain cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The rapid breakdown of cancer cells in response to treatment can lead to metabolic abnormalities, such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia, which can be life-threatening. Choice B, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), is not typically associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice C, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is more commonly seen in conditions such as sepsis or trauma, not directly related to non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common complication following treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.
The home health care nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client's pain should include which assessment?
- A. The client's pain rating
- B. Nonverbal cues from the client
- C. The nurse's impression of the client's pain
- D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's pain rating. Pain assessment should primarily rely on the client's self-report for the most accurate determination of pain intensity. Nonverbal cues from the client (choice B) can provide additional information but should not replace the client's self-report. The nurse's impression of the client's pain (choice C) may be subjective and less reliable than the client's self-assessment. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention (choice D) is an important outcome but does not replace the initial assessment of the client's pain.