Nokea
A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
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A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?
- A. Contact provider if the cord turns black
- B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily
- C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off
- D. The cord stump will fall off in ten days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching for cord care is to keep the cord dry until it falls off naturally. This helps prevent infection, as the cord typically falls off in 10-14 days, not within five days. Instructing the parent to contact the provider if the cord turns black (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of infection. Cleaning the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (Choice B) is not recommended as it can delay healing. Stating that the cord stump will fall off in ten days (Choice D) provides a more accurate timeframe compared to the initial estimation of five days.
A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.
A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
- B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours
- C. Plan for oxygen therapy with a rebreather mask
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.
A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.