A client seeks medical attention for intermittent signs and symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. The nurse should assess the trigger of these signs/symptoms by asking which question?
- A. Does being exposed to heat seem to cause the episodes?
- B. Do the signs and symptoms occur while you are asleep?
- C. Does drinking coffee or ingesting chocolate seem related to the episodes?
- D. Have you experienced any injuries that have limited your activity levels lately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Raynaud's disease is vasospasm of the arterioles and arteries of the upper and lower extremities. It produces closure of the small arteries in the distal extremities in response to cold, vibration, or external stimuli. Episodes are characterized by pallor, cold, numbness, and possible cyanosis of the fingers, followed by erythema, tingling, and aching pain. Attacks are triggered by exposure to cold, nicotine, caffeine, trauma to the fingertips, and stress. Prolonged episodes of inactivity are unrelated to these episodes.
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When a client with a chest injury is suspected of experiencing a pleural effusion, which typical manifestations of this respiratory problem should the nurse assess for? Select all that apply.
- A. Dry cough
- B. Moist cough
- C. Dyspnea at rest
- D. Productive cough
- E. Dyspnea on exertion
- F. Nonproductive cough
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: A pleural effusion is the collection of fluid in the pleural space. Typical assessment findings in the client with a pleural effusion include dyspnea, which usually occurs with exertion, and a dry, nonproductive cough. The cough is caused by bronchial irritation and possible mediastinal shift.
A client diagnosed with urolithiasis is being evaluated to determine the type of calculi that are present. The nurse should plan to keep which item available in the client's room to assist in this process?
- A. A urine strainer
- B. A calorie count sheet
- C. A vital signs graphic sheet
- D. An intake and output record
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The urine is strained until the stone is passed, obtained, and analyzed. Straining the urine will catch small stones that should be sent to the laboratory for analysis. Once the type of stone is determined, an individualized plan of care for prevention and treatment is developed. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the question.
The nurse plans care for a client requiring intravenous (IV) fluids and electrolytes understanding that which are findings that correlate with the need for this type of therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Bounding pulse rate
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Isolated syncope episodes
- E. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse
- F. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality levels
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: Abnormal assessment findings of major body systems offer clues to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse is an assessment abnormality found with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality are laboratory tests that are helpful in identifying the presence of or risk of fluid imbalances. Isolated episodes of syncope are not indicators for intravenous therapy unless fluid and electrolyte imbalances are identified. A bounding pulse rate is a manifestation of fluid volume excess; therefore, IV fluids are not indicated. Clients with chronic kidney disease experience the inability of the kidneys to regulate the body's water balance; fluid restrictions may be used.
A client with significant flail chest has arterial blood gases (ABGs) that reveal a PaO2 of 68 and a PaCO2 of 51. Two hours ago the PaO2 was 82 and the PaCO2 was 44. Based on these changes, which item should the nurse assure easy access to in order to help ensure client safety?
- A. Intubation tray
- B. Injectable lidocaine
- C. Chest tube insertion set
- D. Portable chest x-ray machine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flail chest occurs from a blunt trauma to the chest. The loose segment from the chest wall becomes paradoxical to the expansion and contraction of the rest of the chest wall. The client with flail chest has painful, rapid, shallow respirations while experiencing severe dyspnea. The laboratory results indicate worsening respiratory acidosis. The effort of breathing and the paradoxical chest movement have the net effect of producing hypoxia and hypercapnia. The client develops respiratory failure and requires intubation and mechanical ventilation, usually with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP); therefore, an intubation tray is necessary. None of the other options have a direct purpose with the client's current respiratory status.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a subclavian catheter suddenly develops dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Based on these findings, which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for the client?
- A. Obtain a stat oxygen saturation level.
- B. Examine the insertion site for redness.
- C. Perform a stat finger-stick glucose level.
- D. Turn the client to the left side in Trendelenburg's position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clinical indicators of air embolism include chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, anxiety, feelings of impending doom, cyanosis, and hypotension. Positioning the client in Trendelenburg's and on the left side helps isolate the air embolism in the right atrium and prevents a thromboembolic event in a vital organ.