A client seeks treatment in an ambulatory clinic for hoarseness that has persisted for 8 weeks. Based on the symptom, the nurse interprets that the client is at risk for which disorder?
- A. Thyroid cancer
- B. Acute laryngitis
- C. Laryngeal cancer
- D. Bronchogenic cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hoarseness is a common early sign of laryngeal cancer, but not of thyroid or bronchogenic cancer. Hoarseness that persists for 8 weeks is not associated with an acute problem, such as laryngitis.
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The primary health care provider prescribes a dose of intravenous (IV) potassium chloride for a client. When administering the IV potassium chloride, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Inject it as a bolus.
- B. Use a filter in the IV line.
- C. Dilute it per medication instructions.
- D. Apply cool compresses to the IV site.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Potassium chloride is very irritating to the vein and must be diluted to prevent phlebitis and is administered using an IV pump. Potassium chloride is never administered as a bolus injection because it can cause cardiac arrest. A filter is not necessary for potassium solutions. Cool compresses would constrict the blood vessel, which could possibly be more irritating to the vein.
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.
The nurse is performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on a client when the client unexpectedly develops spastic muscle contractions. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Stop movement of the affected part.
- B. Massage the affected part vigorously.
- C. Notify the primary health care provider immediately.
- D. Force movement of the joint supporting the muscle.
- E. Ask the client to stand and walk rapidly around the room.
- F. Place continuous gentle pressure on the muscle group until it relaxes.
Correct Answer: A,F
Rationale: ROM exercises should put each joint through as full a range of motion as possible without causing discomfort. An unexpected outcome is the development of spastic muscle contraction during ROM exercises. If this occurs, the nurse should stop movement of the affected part and place continuous gentle pressure on the muscle group until it relaxes. Once the contraction subsides, the exercises are resumed using slower, steady movement. Massaging the affected part vigorously may worsen the contraction. There is no need to notify the primary health care provider unless intervention is ineffective. The nurse should never force movement of a joint. Asking the client to stand and walk rapidly around the room is an inappropriate measure.
The nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome as a result of a severely fractured arm. When the client asks why this happens, how should the nurse respond?
- A. A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area.
- B. An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment.
- C. Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand.
- D. The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is caused by bleeding and swelling within a compartment, which is lined by fascia that does not expand. The bleeding and swelling place pressure on the nerves, muscles, and blood vessels in the compartment, triggering the symptoms. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect statements.
The nurse suspects that an air embolism has occurred when the client's central venous catheter disconnects from the intravenous (IV) tubing. The nurse immediately places the client on her or his left side in which position?
- A. High Fowler's
- B. Trendelenburg's
- C. Lateral recumbent
- D. Reverse Trendelenburg's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If the client develops an air embolism, the immediate action is to place the client in Trendelenburg's position on the left side. This position raises the client's feet higher than the head and traps any air in the right atrium. If necessary, the air can then be directly removed by intracardiac aspiration.