A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
- A. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
- B. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
- C. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
- D. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Contractions 5 minutes apart indicate the onset of active labor, prompting further evaluation.
You may also like to solve these questions
The doctor has ordered Percocet (oxycodone) for a client following abdominal surgery. The primary objective of nursing care for the client receiving an opiate analgesic is:
- A. Preventing addiction
- B. Alleviating pain
- C. Facilitating mobility
- D. Preventing nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of opiate analgesics like Percocet is to alleviate pain, improving comfort and recovery post-surgery.
The nurse recognizes that if eaten by a client, which food can alter results when stool is checked for occult blood?
- A. potatoes
- B. dairy products
- C. raw fruits
- D. beef
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Beef contains heme, which can cause a false-positive result in a fecal occult blood test. Other foods listed do not typically interfere.
A client is being treated for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The nurse knows that the involvement of nursing, pharmacy, gastroenterology, and nutritional services is an example of which of the following approaches?
- A. continuity of care
- B. multidisciplinary
- C. managed care
- D. case management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A multidisciplinary approach involves multiple specialties (nursing, pharmacy, gastroenterology, nutrition) collaborating to manage IBS.
The nurse recognizes all of the following as type IV hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT
- A. allergic contact dermatitis.
- B. Crohn's disease.
- C. graft versus host disease.
- D. penicillin allergy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity is cell-mediated (e.g., contact dermatitis, Crohn’s, GVHD). Penicillin allergy is typically type I (IgE-mediated).
A client with AIDS has a viral load of 200 copies per ml. The nurse should interpret this finding as:
- A. The client is at risk for opportunistic diseases.
- B. The client is no longer communicable.
- C. The client's viral load is extremely low so he is relatively free of circulating virus.
- D. The client's T-cell count is extremely low.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A viral load of 200 copies/ml is low, indicating effective treatment and minimal circulating virus.
Nokea