Nokea
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
- A. Her contractions are two minutes apart.
- B. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
- C. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
- D. Her contractions are five minutes apart.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Contractions five minutes apart lasting 30-60 seconds indicate the onset of active labor. Two-minute contractions suggest advanced labor and back pain or urination are less specific signs.
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A 42-year-old client with bipolar disorder has been hospitalized on the inpatient psychiatric unit. She is dancing around, talking incessantly, and singing. Much of the time the client is anorexic and eats very little from her tray before she is up and about again. The nurse's intervention would be to:
- A. Confront the client with the fact that she will have to eat more from her tray to sustain her
- B. Try to get the client to focus on her eating by offering a detailed discussion on the importance of nutrition
- C. Let her have snacks and drinks anytime that she wants them because she will not eat at regular meal times
- D. Not expect the client to sit down for complete meals; monitor intake, offering snacks and juice frequently
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The manic client's mood may easily change from euphoric to irritable. The nurse should avoid confrontation and let the client know what she can do, rather than what she cannot. Although helpful to refocus or redirect the manic client to discuss only one topic at a time, distractibility is very high and it's best to avoid long discussions. Manic clients have a tendency to manipulate persons in their environment. Staff should monitor intake, including at mealtime and snacks, and be consistent in their approach to meeting nutritional needs. Manic clients may not sit and eat complete meals, but they can carry foods and liquids from regular meals with them. Staff can monitor and give high-caloric and high-energy snacks and liquids.
Which finding in the patient's history contraindicates the use of Imitrex (sumatriptan) for the prevention of migraine headaches?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Angina
- C. Renal calculi
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a vasoconstrictor contraindicated in patients with angina due to the risk of coronary artery vasoconstriction and ischemia. Diabetes renal calculi and peptic ulcer disease are not contraindications for sumatriptan.
A client's wife is concerned over his behavior in recent months. He has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, and she is telling his nurse that he has been doing 'strange things.' The nurse reassures the wife that the following behavior is normal with Parkinson's disease:
- A. Your husband will experience some periods of muscle flaccidity. Be sure to make him sit down during these periods.'
- B. Your husband may move his hands in motions that look like he is rolling a pill between his fingers.'
- C. Twitching of the muscles is to be expected and can occur at any time during the day.'
- D. Parkinson's disease causes severe pain in the joints. You should give your husband Tylenol at those times.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with Parkinson's disease generally experience stiffness and rigid movement. Pill-rolling movements are a symptom experienced by the Parkinson client. Twitching of the muscles is not an expected symptom of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease does not cause joint pain. Mild muscular pain may be present.
A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted in a cholinergic crisis. Signs of of cholinergic crisis include:
- A. Decreased blood pressure and constricted pupils
- B. Increased heart rate and increased respirations
- C. Increased respirations and increased blood pressure
- D. Anoxia and absence of the cough reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cholinergic crisis, often from excessive anticholinesterase medication, causes parasympathetic overstimulation, leading to decreased blood pressure and constricted pupils.
A client is taking Rifadin (rifampin) 600 mg PO daily for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Take the medication with juice
- B. Expect red discoloration of the urine
- C. Take the medication before going to bed at night
- D. Take the medication only if night sweats occur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears, which clients should be informed about to avoid alarm. It can be taken with or without food, timing is not restricted to bedtime, and it is taken daily, not conditionally.