Nokea
A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
- B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
- C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.
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The nurse is preparing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this?
- A. Guaifenesin
- B. Prednisone
- C. Salmeterol
- D. Tiotropium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?
- A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
- B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
- C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
- D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Headache
- C. Muscle cramping
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.
A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.