Nokea
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt chest trauma. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cyanosis with accompanying pallor
- B. Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
- C. Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
- D. Haziness or 'white-out' appearance of lungs on chest radiograph
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24 to 48 hours after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases, tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventilation. Cyanosis and pallor are late findings and are the result of severe hypoxemia. Breath sounds in the early stages of ARDS are usually clear but then progress to diffuse crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Chest radiographic findings may be normal during the early stages but will show diffuse haziness or 'white-out' appearance in the later stages.
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The nurse is assigned to care for an infant on the first postoperative day after a surgical repair of a cleft lip. Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for this child's surgical incision?
- A. Rinsing the incision with sterile water after feeding
- B. Cleaning the incision only when serous exudate forms
- C. Rubbing the incision gently with a sterile cotton-tipped swab
- D. Replacing the Logan bar carefully after cleaning the incision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The incision should be rinsed with sterile water after every feeding. Rubbing alters the integrity of the suture line. Rather, the incision should be patted or dabbed. The purpose of the Logan bar is to maintain the integrity of the suture line. Removing the Logan bar on the first postoperative day would increase tension on the surgical incision.
A hospitalized client awaiting repair of an unruptured cerebral aneurysm is frequently assessed by the nurse. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as an early indication that the aneurysm has ruptured?
- A. Widened pulse pressure
- B. Unilateral motor weakness
- C. Unilateral slowing of pupil response
- D. A decline in the level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm usually results in increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The first sign of pressure in the brain is a change in the level of consciousness. This change in consciousness can be as subtle as drowsiness or restlessness. Because centers that control blood pressure are located lower in the brain than those that control consciousness, blood pressure alteration is a later sign. Slowing of pupil response and motor weakness are also late signs.
The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of the client after a thoracentesis has been performed. The nurse would become concerned with which assessment finding?
- A. Equal bilateral chest expansion
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Few scattered wheezes, unchanged from baseline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse assesses vital signs and breath sounds. The nurse especially notes increased respiratory rates, dyspnea, retractions, diminished breath sounds, or cyanosis, which could indicate pneumothorax. Any of these manifestations should be reported to the primary health care provider. Options 1 and 2 are normal findings. Option 4 indicates a finding that is unchanged from the baseline.
When tranylcypromine is prescribed for a client, which food items should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? Select all that apply.
- A. Figs
- B. Apples
- C. Bananas
- D. Broccoli
- E. Sauerkraut
- F. Baked chicken
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used to treat depression. Foods that contain tyramine need to be avoided because of the risk of hypertensive crisis associated with use of this medication. Foods to avoid include figs; bananas; sauerkraut; avocados; soybeans; meats or fish that are fermented, smoked, or otherwise aged; some cheeses; yeast extract; and some beers and wine.
A client with an extremity burn injury has undergone a fasciotomy. The nurse prepares to provide which type of wound care to the fasciotomy site?
- A. Dry sterile dressings
- B. Hydrocolloid dressings
- C. Wet, sterile saline dressings
- D. One-half-strength povidone-iodine dressings
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fasciotomy is an incision made extending through the subcutaneous tissue and fascia. The fasciotomy site is not sutured but is left open to relieve pressure and edema. The site is covered with wet sterile saline dressings. After 3 to 5 days, when perfusion is adequate and edema subsides, the wound is debrided and closed. A hydrocolloid dressing is not indicated for use with clean, open incisions. The incision is clean, not dirty, so there should be no reason to require povidone-iodine. Additionally, povidone-iodine can be irritating to normal tissues.