Nokea
A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
- B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
- C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
- D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.
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A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
- A. Chvostek's sign
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Chadwick's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.
A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Examination to determine cervical status
- B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Initiation of pushing
- D. Preparation for cesarean birth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?
- A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
- C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
- D. Heart rate of 56/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.
A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
- B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
- C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
- D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.