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A client who experienced repeated pleural effusions from inoperable lung cancer is to undergo pleurodesis. What intervention should the nurse plan to implement after the primary health care provider injects the sclerosing agent through the chest tube to help assure the effectiveness of the procedure?
- A. Ambulate the client.
- B. Clamp the chest tube.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Ask the client to remain in a side-lying position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After injection of the sclerosing agent, the chest tube is clamped to prevent the agent from draining back out of the pleural space. Depending on primary health care provider preference, a repositioning schedule is used to disperse the substance. Ambulation, coughing, and deep breathing have no specific purpose in the immediate period after injection.
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A client who undergoes a gastric resection is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. Which manifestation should the nurse monitor the client for? Select all that apply.
- A. Pallor
- B. Dizziness
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
- E. Constipation
- F. Extreme thirst
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Dumping syndrome is the rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine that occurs after gastric resection. Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Manifestations also include vasomotor disturbances such as dizziness, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter (CVC) is scheduled to receive an intravenous (IV) antibiotic. Which intervention should the nurse implement before administering the antibiotic?
- A. Turn off the TPN for 30 minutes.
- B. Ensure a separate IV access route.
- C. Flush the CVC with normal saline.
- D. Check for compatibility with TPN.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The TPN line is used only for the administration of the TPN solution to prevent crystallization in the CVC tubing and disruption of the TPN infusion. Any other IV medication must be administered through a separate IV access site, including a separate infusion port of the CVC catheter. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect actions.
During a follow-up visit 2 weeks after pneumonectomy, the client reports numbness and tenderness at the surgical site. Which statement should the nurse make to accurately address the client's concerns?
- A. This is not likely to be permanent, but may last for some months.
- B. You are having a severe problem and will probably be rehospitalized
- C. This is probably caused by permanent nerve damage as a result of surgery.
- D. This is often the first sign of a wound infection; I will check your temperature.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients who undergo pneumonectomy or other surgical procedures may experience numbness, altered sensation, or tenderness in the area that surrounds the incision. These sensations may last for months. It is not considered to be a severe problem and is not indicative of a wound infection.
The nurse performing a prenatal assessment on a client in the first trimester of pregnancy discovers that the client frequently consumes beverages containing alcohol. Why should the nurse initiate interventions immediately to assist the client in avoiding alcohol consumption?
- A. To reduce the potential for fetal growth restriction in utero
- B. To promote the normal psychosocial adaptation of the mother to pregnancy
- C. To minimize the potential for placental abruptions during the intrapartum period
- D. To reduce the risk of teratogenic effects to embryo's developing fetal organs and tissue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol consumption during the first trimester poses a significant risk for teratogenic effects, as this is a critical period for organogenesis in the developing embryo. Exposure to alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome or other congenital anomalies, making immediate intervention essential to protect fetal development. While fetal growth restriction, psychosocial adaptation, and placental abruption are concerns, they are less directly associated with early pregnancy alcohol exposure compared to teratogenic effects.
A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is prescribed for a client with a suspected brain tumor. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the client before the procedure?
- A. An opioid
- B. A sedative
- C. A corticosteroid
- D. An antihistamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An MRI scan is a noninvasive diagnostic test that visualizes the body's tissues, structure, and blood flow. For an MRI, the client is positioned on a padded table and moved into a cylinder-shaped scanner. Relaxation techniques, an eye mask, and sedation are used before the procedure to reduce claustrophobic effects; however, because the client must remain very still during the scan, the nurse avoids oversedating the client to ensure client cooperation. There is no useful purpose for administering an opioid, corticosteroid, or antihistamine.