A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being discharged. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. I should avoid crowded places while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication until my symptoms resolve.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking prednisone should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to immunosuppression. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone is usually prescribed for a specific duration and not for life. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, which may not always align with symptom resolution.
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A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
- B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
- C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Heart rate of 68/min.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Nuchal rigidity.
- B. Flaccid paralysis.
- C. Bradycardia.
- D. Hypothermia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.
A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
- B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
- C. Limit IV exposure to light.
- D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.
A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?
- A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
- B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.
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