Nokea
A client who has been diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning is asking that the oxygen mask be removed. The nurse shares with the client that the oxygen may be safely removed once the carboxyhemoglobin level decreases to less than which level?
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. 15%
- D. 25%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen may be removed safely from the client with carbon monoxide poisoning once carboxyhemoglobin levels are less than 5%. Normal carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) levels are 0% to 3% for nonsmokers and 3% to 8% for smokers. Levels of 10% to 20% cause headaches, nausea, vomiting, and dyspnea. Levels of 30% to 40% cause severe headaches, syncope, and tachydysrhythmias. Levels greater than 40% cause Cheyne-Stokes respiration or respiratory failure, seizures, unconsciousness, permanent brain damage, cardiac arrest, and even death. Options 2, 3, and 4 are elevated levels.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with a posterior wall bladder injury has had surgical repair and placement of a suprapubic catheter. What intervention should the nurse plan to implement to prevent complications associated with the use of this catheter?
- A. Monitor urine output every shift.
- B. Measure specific gravity once a shift.
- C. Encourage a high intake of oral fluids.
- D. Avoid kinking of the catheter tubing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A complication after surgical repair of the bladder is disruption of sutures caused by tension on them from urine buildup. The nurse prevents this from happening by ensuring that the catheter is able to drain freely. This involves basic catheter care, including keeping the tubing free from kinks, keeping the tubing below the level of the bladder, and monitoring the flow of urine frequently. Monitoring urine output every shift is insufficient to detect decreased flow from catheter kinking. Measurement of urine specific gravity and a high oral fluid intake do not prevent complications of bladder surgery.
The nurse has just finished assisting the primary health care provider in placing a central intravenous (IV) line. Which is a priority intervention to assure the client's safety?
- A. Assessing the client's pain level
- B. Assessing the client's temperature
- C. Preparing the client for a chest x-ray
- D. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (BP)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A major risk associated with central line placement is the possibility of a pneumothorax developing from an accidental puncture of the lung. Assessing the results of a chest radiograph is one of the best methods to determine if this complication has occurred and verify catheter tip placement before initiating IV therapy. A temperature elevation related to central line insertion would not likely occur immediately after placement. Pain management is important but is not the priority at this point. Although BP assessment is always important in assessing a client's status after an invasive procedure, fluid volume overload is not a concern until IV fluids are started.
A client has received atropine sulfate preoperatively. The nurse monitors the client for which effect of the medication in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Excessive salivation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic medication that causes tachycardia, drowsiness, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse should monitor the client for any of these effects in the immediate postoperative period. None of the other options relate to this medication.
When a client experiences frequent runs of ventricular tachycardia, the primary health care provider prescribes flecainide. Because of the effects of the medication, which nursing intervention is specific to this client's safety?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Assess the client for neurological problems.
- C. Ensure that the bed rails remain in the up position.
- D. Monitor the client's vital signs and electrocardiogram (ECG) frequently.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flecainide is an antidysrhythmic medication that slows conduction and decreases excitability, conduction velocity, and automaticity. However, the nurse must monitor for the development of a new or worsening dysrhythmia. Options 1, 2, and 3 are components of standard care but are not specific to this medication.
The nurse is monitoring a client in the telemetry unit who has recently been admitted with the diagnosis of chest pain and notes this heart rate pattern on the monitoring strip. What is the initial action to be taken by the nurse?
- A. Notify the primary health care provider.
- B. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
- C. Continue to monitor the client and the heart rate patterns.
- D. Administer oxygen with a face mask at 8 to 10 L per minute.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The monitor is showing ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening dysrhythmia that requires CPR and defibrillation to maintain life. Although the primary health care provider must be notified, CPR is the initial action. Oxygen is necessary, but again the initiation of CPR is the priority because it will provide more than just oxygen to the client. Monitoring the client is necessary, but not as an initial action; emergency resuscitative treatment must be provided to the client immediately.