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A client who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is hospitalized and will be on respiratory isolation for at least 2 weeks. Which intervention is most appropriate in planning to prevent psychosocial distress in the client?
- A. Noting whether the client has visitors
- B. Instructing all staff members to not touch the client
- C. Giving the client a roommate with TB who persistently tries to talk
- D. Removing the calendar and clock in the room so that the client will not obsess about time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should note whether the client has visitors and social contacts because the presence of others can offer positive stimulation. Touch may be important to help the client feel socially acceptable. A roommate who insists on talking could create sensory overload. In addition, the client on respiratory isolation should be in a private room. The calendar and clock are needed to promote orientation to time.
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The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
- C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
- D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.
The nurse in the outpatient mental health clinic develops a plan of care for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The nurse determines that which goal is most important?
- A. The client will identify symptoms of electrolyte imbalance.
- B. The client will maintain dental appointments and oral hygiene.
- C. The client will attend appropriate community support groups.
- D. The client will abstain from binge-purge behaviors.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abstaining from binge-purge behaviors is the primary goal for bulimia treatment, as these behaviors drive the disorder's physical and psychological harm. Other goals support recovery but are secondary to stopping the cycle.
Two months after a right mastectomy for breast cancer, a client comes to the office for a follow-up appointment. After being diagnosed with cancer in the right breast, the client was told that the risk for cancer in the left breast existed. When asked about her breast self-examination (BSE) practices since the surgery, the client replied, 'I don't need to do that anymore.' The nurse interprets this response to be using which coping mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Grief and mourning
- C. Change in body image
- D. Change in role pattern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The coping strategy of denying or minimizing a health problem can produce health situations that may be life threatening. Denial can lead to an avoidance of self-care measures, such as taking medications or performing a BSE. None of the remaining options are coping mechanism.
When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?
- A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
- B. Confirm placement of the tube
- C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
- D. Turn off the intermittent suction device
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.