A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
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A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.
A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
- C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
- D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.
The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Cold intolerance
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increase in metabolism, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Therefore, the nurse should expect an increased appetite in a client with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate and cold intolerance are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, while weight gain is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism.
A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge?
- A. Nutritional guidelines to support blood health
- B. Signs of infection to monitor for
- C. When to give pain medication
- D. Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Proper hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia (SCA) as it helps prevent sickling of red blood cells and reduces blood viscosity, which can lead to painful crises. Ensuring the child drinks enough fluids is essential to maintain adequate hydration levels and reduce the risk of complications. While nutritional guidelines and recognizing signs of infection are important aspects of care, maintaining proper hydration is the most immediate and critical factor in managing SCA and preventing crises.
A client recovering from a stroke is demonstrating slurred speech. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult the healthcare provider to order speech therapy.
- B. Administer a dose of aspirin to prevent further neurological damage.
- C. Encourage the client to use communication aids, such as writing.
- D. Encourage the client to eat soft foods to avoid choking.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a client recovering from a stroke demonstrating slurred speech is to encourage the client to use communication aids, such as writing. This intervention can help the client effectively communicate while working on regaining speech abilities. Consulting the healthcare provider to order speech therapy (choice A) is a valid option, but immediate encouragement of using communication aids is beneficial. Administering aspirin (choice B) without healthcare provider orders is not recommended. Encouraging the client to eat soft foods (choice D) is important for preventing aspiration but doesn't directly address the communication issue.