Nokea
A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?
- A. Rupture of the bladder
- B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
- C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
- D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.
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A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
- A. Lymphadenectomy
- B. Needle biopsy
- C. Open biopsy
- D. Sentinel node biopsy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.
A nurse works with clients who have alopecia from chemotherapy. What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Helping clients adjust to their appearance.
- B. Reassuring clients that this change is temporary.
- C. Referring clients to a reputable wig shop.
- D. Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury. Alopecia makes the scalp more vulnerable to injury, so educating clients on protective measures is crucial. Choices A and B focus on emotional support and reassurance, which are important but secondary to physical safety. Referring clients to a wig shop (choice C) addresses appearance but does not directly address the physical risk associated with scalp vulnerability.
A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.
When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Adjust the dose based on the patient's present symptoms.
- B. Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser before and after administration.
- C. Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing and administering the medication.
- D. Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle. Antineoplastic agents are hazardous materials, and proper disposal is crucial to prevent harm to individuals and the environment. Option A is incorrect because adjusting the dose based on the patient's present symptoms may not be safe without proper authorization. Option B is incorrect as hand hygiene should be performed both before and after administering medications. Option C is incorrect as gloves and a lab coat should be worn primarily during handling and administration, not just during preparation.
Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
- B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
- D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.