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A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Intellectualization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.
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A male client who has been on lithium therapy for 5 years is experiencing frequent urination and increased thirst. What should the nurse's next action be?
- A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Assess for signs of lithium toxicity.
- C. Suggest the client reduce salt intake.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent urination and increased thirst can be signs of lithium toxicity, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Assessing for signs of lithium toxicity is crucial to determine the client's condition and prevent further harm. Instructing the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) may worsen the situation by exacerbating lithium toxicity. Suggesting the client reduce salt intake (Choice C) is not the priority when signs of toxicity are present. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important, but the initial action should be to assess the client for signs of lithium toxicity to provide immediate care.
A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Seizures
- B. Visual hallucinations
- C. Tremors
- D. Delirium tremens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. Liver function tests.
- B. Kidney function tests.
- C. Thyroid function tests.
- D. Complete blood count.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial for clients prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) due to the medication's potential to affect liver function and increase the risk of liver toxicity. While kidney function tests (choice B), thyroid function tests (choice C), and complete blood count (choice D) are important in various clinical scenarios, the priority when administering valproic acid is to monitor liver function to prevent adverse effects associated with this medication.
A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?
- A. Altered thought processes.
- B. Moderate levels of anxiety.
- C. Inadequate social support.
- D. Altered health maintenance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.