Nokea
A client who has recently started using a behind-the-ear hearing aid is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the use of assistive devices?
- A. "I will be sure to remove my hearing aid before taking a shower."
- B. "I will keep my hearing aid in at all times, even when sleeping."
- C. "I will clean my hearing aid with alcohol."
- D. "I will turn off my hearing aid when not in use."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for the client to remove the hearing aid before showering to prevent damage from moisture. Choice B is incorrect as wearing the hearing aid all the time, including during sleep, is not recommended and can cause discomfort or harm. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol can damage hearing aids; they should be cleaned with a solution recommended by the manufacturer to prevent harm. Choice D is incorrect because hearing aids should not be turned off when not in use; instead, they should be stored properly following the manufacturer's instructions to maintain functionality and battery life.
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A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?
- A. Input and output measurements for the shift
- B. Blood pressure readings from the previous day
- C. Bone scan scheduled for today
- D. Medication regimen from the medication administration record
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.
When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?
- A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
- B. Hair growth in the axillae
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
- D. Deepening of the voice
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.
A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
- A. Side-lying
- B. Supine
- C. Semi-Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler's position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.
A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.
The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
- A. Feet
- B. Nail beds
- C. Perineum
- D. Oral cavity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications.
Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments.
Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects.
Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.