Nokea
A client who has sustained a burn injury receives a prescription for a regular diet. Which is the best meal for the nurse to provide to the client to promote wound healing?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple, tea
- B. Chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, milk
- C. Veal chop, boiled potatoes, Jell-O, orange juice
- D. Pasta with tomato sauce, garlic bread, ginger ale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The meal with the best potential to promote wound healing includes nutrient-rich food choices, including protein, such as chicken and milk, and vitamin C, such as broccoli and strawberries. The remaining options include one or more items with a low nutritional value, especially the tea, jelly, Jell-O, and ginger ale.
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The nurse has just administered a purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) to a client who is at low risk for developing tuberculosis. The nurse determines that the test is positive if which occurs?
- A. An induration of 15 mm
- B. The presence of a wheal
- C. A large area of erythema
- D. Itching at the injection site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An induration of 10 mm or more is considered positive for clients in low-risk groups. The presence of a wheal would indicate that the skin test was administered appropriately. Erythema or itching at the site is not indicative of a positive reaction.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt chest trauma. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cyanosis with accompanying pallor
- B. Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
- C. Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
- D. Haziness or 'white-out' appearance of lungs on chest radiograph
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24 to 48 hours after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases, tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventilation. Cyanosis and pallor are late findings and are the result of severe hypoxemia. Breath sounds in the early stages of ARDS are usually clear but then progress to diffuse crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Chest radiographic findings may be normal during the early stages but will show diffuse haziness or 'white-out' appearance in the later stages.
A client with a known history of panic disorder comes to the emergency department and states to the nurse, 'Please help me. I think I'm having a heart attack.' What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess the client's vital signs.
- B. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
- C. Identify the manifestations related to the panic disorder.
- D. Determine what the client's activity involved when the pain started.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with a panic disorder can experience acute physical symptoms, such as chest pain and palpitations. The priority is to assess the client's physical condition to rule out a physiological disorder for these signs and symptoms. Although options 2, 3, and 4 may be appropriate at some point in the care of the client, they are not the priority.
The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of the client after a thoracentesis has been performed. The nurse would become concerned with which assessment finding?
- A. Equal bilateral chest expansion
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Few scattered wheezes, unchanged from baseline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse assesses vital signs and breath sounds. The nurse especially notes increased respiratory rates, dyspnea, retractions, diminished breath sounds, or cyanosis, which could indicate pneumothorax. Any of these manifestations should be reported to the primary health care provider. Options 1 and 2 are normal findings. Option 4 indicates a finding that is unchanged from the baseline.
A client newly diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse to explain again what the most serious complication of the disorder might be. The nurse will provide the client with information concerning which condition?
- A. Diabetes insipidus
- B. End-stage renal disease (ESRD)
- C. Chronic urinary tract infection (UTI)
- D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In polycystic kidney disease, cystic formation and hypertrophy of the kidneys occur. The most serious complication of polycystic kidney disease is ESRD, which is managed with dialysis or transplant. There is no reliable way to predict who will ultimately progress to ESRD. Chronic UTIs are the most common complication because of the altered anatomy of the kidney and from development of resistant strains of bacteria. Diabetes insipidus and SIADH secretion are unrelated disorders.