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A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
- B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
- C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
- D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Your newborn should appear content after each feeding. This is important as it indicates the baby is getting enough milk and is satisfied. If the baby appears content, it suggests effective breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect as milk transition typically occurs within a few days, not 10. Choice B is incorrect as breasts feeling firm is not a reliable indicator of successful breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as the number of wet diapers is a better indicator of proper hydration, not just urination frequency.
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A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
- A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
- B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
- C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
- D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex.
Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Ballottement
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
- A. Ice water
- B. Low-fat or whole milk
- C. Tea or coffee
- D. Orange juice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting non-heme iron to a more absorbable form. The acidity in orange juice aids in this process. Ice water (choice A) does not contain any nutrients to enhance iron absorption. Low-fat or whole milk (choice B) contains calcium, which can inhibit iron absorption. Tea or coffee (choice C) contains tannins that can also inhibit iron absorption. In summary, orange juice is the best choice due to its vitamin C content that helps improve iron absorption.